With people, the logic is that they elect a government to govern them, so the government gets to pick who gets guns.
This isn't entirely related to this discussion, I'm just curious about something and this is a convenient subject to use, So if you'll humor me, do you mind answering this hypothetical question:
Let's say that our Bill of Right's 2nd Amendment was blatantly clear on it's intention, that it very clearly said "The federal government shall not infringe on any [hu]man's right to bear any arms." Or something like that. Something in our Constitution that straight up says The People can have guns. Do you think that your view of the logic of this situation would still apply the same?
(This is not at all intended as a baiting, pro- or anti- anything question. As I said, I just curious about something.)